Does the ‘Lord’ here refer to Jesus or God Almighty? Probably the latter, because the real Most Holy part of the Temple was, of course, built for Jehovah/Yahweh to dwell in.
Why do we use ‘Jehovah’ here in this New Testament text? We are not dogmatic about this use here. We simply suspect that kyriou (κυρίω) and d’maryah (ܒܡܪܝܐ) here are well-understood euphemisms for YHWH because:
- A. In the Greek source, this verse has the grammar ‘error’ that says ‘Lord’ instead of ‘the Lord,’ as if Lord is a proper noun. This is what the Greek Septuagint used to indicate that Lord is a euphemism for YHWH. Learn more
- B. In the Aramaic New Testament maryah is used as euphemism for YHWH in Old Testament quotes and other places, and it appears here also. Learn more
- F. The context shows that it is talking about the Almighty and not Jesus.
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