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God’s Name Circumlocutions

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Name of God’s Son

Where the Aramaic Maryah is Unclear

There are many verses where it’s unclear to whom MarYah is referring. Most could be referring to either Jesus as the highest Lord, or it could be a circumlocution for God’s Name, Jehovah/Yahweh.

Exhaustive details appear below.

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Index

Verses where MarYah is unclear

Luke 1:17

Problem: Possible corruption of the Hebrew text

Here, the messenger is referring to the prophecy made in Isaiah 40:3. Although in most manuscripts it says ‘prepare the way for Jehovah/Yahweh’, this is one of the places we suspect that YHWH was inserted into the text incorrectly at some point.

However, we cannot be certain about this, as the Greek does indeed have the usual ‘grammar error’ here that we would expect to be a circumlocution for YHWH. The Aramaic translation also puts MarYah here, so people understood the verse in Isaiah to be referring to Yahweh, but again, this may be due to God’s Name being restored incorrectly.

Acts 2:20

Problem: Possible corruption of the Hebrew text

It seems that Acts was originally in Greek, so the Aramaic translator may have chosen to put MarYah here off his own back.

Why ‘may?’

Well, our translation usually translates expressions like ‘Day of the Lord’ using ‘Lord’, even though the Hebrew Masoretic text usually says ‘day of Jehovah/Yahweh’.

This is because we believe this expression is probably corrupted in the Hebrew text and said ‘Lord’ originally.

Acts 2:21

Problem: Possible corruption of the Hebrew text

This is quoting Joel 2:32, which reads ‘name of Jehovah/Yahweh’ in the Hebrew Masoretic text. However, our translation says ‘name of the Lord’ in that verse.

We believe it’s (probably) a corruption of the Hebrew text.

Although Acts 2:21 says MarYah here, the Aramaic translator probably just put that there from his own opinion and assumed that Lord here was a circumlocution for YHWH. Alternatively, the translator could have just been using the full spelling of Lord, with no implication that it’s a circumlocution for God’s Name. We just don’t know.

Acts 5:14

Problem: Not certain which Lord is being referred to

This verse was originally written in Greek, so it was the choice of the Aramaic translator to put MarYah here rather than another form of Lord.

The context suggests that the Lord mentioned is Jesus; since the apostle is preaching in the temple, it would seem odd for the people who began believing in ‘the Lord’ to be just starting to believe in Jehovah/Yahweh; otherwise, why would they be at the temple to begin with? Also, the Greek has ‘the’ before ‘Lord’, so there’s no reason to think it’s a circumlocution for YHWH in Greek, at least.

Therefore, even in Aramaic, it’s likely not a circumlocution for YHWH, and is probably just an uninspired word-choice for Jesus.

Acts 10:36

Problem: Not certain which Lord is being referred to

This verse was originally written in Greek, so it was the choice of the Aramaic translator to put MarYah here rather than another form of Lord.

The translator may have assumed (which may be correct) that Lord is not referring to Jesus but refers back to Almighty God, mentioned in verses 34 and 35. Alternatively, MarYah may be chosen because it is the full form of the word for Lord, implying the greatest form of Lord, rather than it being a circumlocution for YHWH. We simply don’t know.

Acts 11:21

Problem: Not certain which Lord is being referred to

There are two mentions of MarYah in this verse.

The first one is missing the article before it in Greek. Therefore, the first instance is translated as Jehovah/Yahweh.

What about the second instance?

The Aramaic translator seems to have assumed that this second kyrios (actually kyrion) was referring to YHWH, which may be correct. However, the Greek text has the article beforehand. So this could be a reference to Jesus. Therefore, we leave it as Lord, and the reader can decide.

Note that Jesus is called Mara in the previous verse (the normal Lord). Therefore, this verse’s second mention of MarYah may indeed be a circumlocution for YHWH, but we just don’t know.

Acts 11:17

Problem: Not certain which Lord is being referred to

This verse was originally written in Greek with kyrios. The Aramaic translator chose to assume that the Lord here was YHWH, and so used MarYah. However, Peter may have been calling the angel who freed him Lord, not God (who sent the angel).

Our Aramaic translator friend assumed that Peter was giving credit to Almighty God (which may be correct), but since we don’t know for sure, we have left it as Lord.

Acts 13:10

Problem: Not certain which Lord is being referred to; Sinaiticus has a grayed-out article

This could be a circumlocution for YHWH, but in the Greek text it contains the article (‘the’), which implies that MarYah was just a choice of the Aramaic translator.

In Greek, it appears as τας οδούς κυρίου (literally: the ways of Lord), or the Lord’s ways.

However, in the mid-4th-century Codex Sinaiticus, the article has been grayed-out, as if the scribe realized that it should not be there (the Vaticanus and Alexandrinus codexes show it normally).

Therefore, this could also have originally been missing the article in Greek. If we combine this fact with the use of MarYah in the Aramaic text, then we could easily see this as another circumlocution for YHWH.

We just don’t know for sure, so we leave it as Lord.

Acts 13:12

Problem: Not certain which Lord is being referred to

The original Greek version contains the article (‘the’), so this may be a reference to Jesus, with MarYah merely being the choice and opinion of the Aramaic translator.

The context could support either a reference to the Lord Jesus or a circumlocution for YHWH; since the man is a Gentile, both Jesus and Jehovah/Yahweh would be new to him. However, it says ‘teachings’ of the Lord, so it is more likely to be a reference to Jesus because the Apostles were, of course, spreading his teachings, and Jesus was known as the ‘Great Teacher.’

However, we don’t know for sure, so we leave it as Lord.

Acts 13:49

Problem: Not certain which Lord is being referred to; May be to match up with a previous mistranslation

The original Greek version contains the article (‘the’) here and says the Lord. So this MarYah may just be the opinion and assumption of the Aramaic translator.

This was probably done to match up with the previous verse, which, in Aramaic, was mistranslated to say ‘glorifies God’ instead of ‘glorifying the word of the Lord.’ So using MarYah here matches up with the previous mistranslated verse.

However, given the Apostle’s comments in verses 46 and 47, the use of ‘Lord’ here could well have been a circumlocution for YHWH.

We simply cannot tell.

Acts 14:3

Problem: Not certain which Lord is being referred to

This verse was originally written in Greek as kyrios. The Aramaic translator chose to assume that the Lord here was YHWH, and so used MarYah.

This is probably because Paul and BarNabas were preaching to a Gentile city where some Jews were present, and previously said to them:

‘We were told that we had to speak the word of God to you first’

And, they have not yet mentioned Jesus (at least as recorded in the account). Then, they spend a lot of time ‘boldly telling them about the Lord.’

Our Aramaic translator seems to have assumed (which may be right) that they are teaching them that YHWH sent Jesus to die for their Sins. Thus ‘Lord’ could be referring to Jehovah/Yahweh or to Jesus. Both would work in the context.

Since we can’t tell, we are leaving it as ‘Lord’.

Acts 14:25

Problem: Mistranslation

The Aramaic version says they ‘preached the word of MarYah,’ but the original Greek does not mention ‘Lord’ at all, just saying ‘teaching the word’.

Acts 14:26

Problem: Mistranslation

The original Greek says ‘of the God’ here, not ‘of the Lord’.

Acts 18:9

Problem: Mistranslation

This verse was originally written in Greek, and Lord was kyrios. The Aramaic translator chose to use MarYah, perhaps thinking that the ‘Lord’ here was YHWH. However, it could easily be the resurrected Jesus. Therefore we leave it as Lord.

Acts 19:10

Problem: Mistranslation

The original Greek says ‘the word of the Lord Jesus’. However, the Aramaic misses out ‘Jesus’ and just says ‘Lord’, as MarYah. This is, therefore, probably a mistranslation, and the casual Aramaic reader would wrongly assume that this is a circumlocution for YHWH, but it is not.

Romans 10:12

Problem: Not certain which Lord is being referred to

This may be unclear to some, however this reference to Lord is probably to the Almighty Jehovah/Yahweh. So the Aramaic is correct to use MarYah here, but it likely isn’t a circumlocution for YHWH since ‘we all have the same Lord’ is a complete sentence, and ‘we all have the same Jehovah/Yahweh’ is a weird way of using a proper noun.

Therefore, we leave it as ‘Lord’.

Romans 10:13

Problem: Possible corruption of the Hebrew text

This is quoting Joel 2:32, which reads ‘name of Jehovah/Yahweh’ in the Hebrew Masoretic text.

However, our translation says ‘name of the Lord’ in that verse. We believe it’s (probably) a corruption of the Hebrew text. Although Paul likely said MarYah here, he could have just been using the full spelling of Lord, with no implication that it’s a circumlocution for God’s Name. Note that in the Greek translation, the article (‘the’) is present.

1 Corinthians 4:5

Problem: Possible corruption of the Hebrew text

The expression ‘the Lord’s Day’ originally comes from Hebrew.

While the Hebrew Masoretic text today phrases that expression as ‘Jehovah’s Day’, we believe this is a corruption of the Hebrew text. The original phrase may have just said ‘Lord’. Therefore, in this instance, MarYah is probably not a circumlocution for YHWH, although some perhaps understood it that way at the time.

1 Corinthians 7:17

Problem: Not certain which Lord is being referred to

It may seem that the Lord who ‘calls you’ mentioned here is Jesus, but the Apostle is probably just using a synonym for God instead of saying ‘God’ twice in a row, as is customary in many languages, including Aramaic.

So could MarYah refer to God Almighty?

Probably, because earlier in the same book (in 1 Corinthians 1:9), the Apostle states that it is ‘God’ who ‘calls you’ to have a share with Jesus:

‘For God, who called you to have a share with His Son (our Lord Jesus the Anointed), is faithful.’

If you search the Bible text, you’ll see that this expression always means that YHWH is doing the calling, e.g. Isaiah 42:6:

‘I’m Jehovah/Yahweh, who called you in justice.’

For this reason, we translate MarYah as Jehovah/Yahweh here.

However, we list it on this page because it is ambiguous without further digging.

1 Corinthians 10:26

Problem: Not certain which Lord is being referred to

While the context doesn’t clarify which Lord is being referred to, it is probably God Almighty since the discussion is about the Old Law and its a quote of Psalms 24:1, which, in Hebrew reads:

‘The earth is Yahweh’s, and everything in it.’

Likewise, the Greek Septuagint version does not have the article (‘the’) in front of ‘Lord’, even though, in 1 Corinthians, the article (‘the’) is present. Perhaps it was added later, or perhaps Paul was paraphrasing.

Therefore, we translate it as [Jehovah/Yahweh].

1 Corinthians 12:5

Problem: Odd phrasing

Lord (MarYah) here refers to the source of the gifts.

The previous verses, and the verse afterward, say that they come from ‘God.’ Does that mean MarYah should be a circumlocution for the name YHWH? No, because ‘they all come from the same Jehovah/Yahweh’ is an odd phrase, not seen anywhere else and doesn’t really make sense.

Therefore, we translate it as Lord. Although, we could be wrong.

1 Corinthians 15:58

Problem: Customary grammar

There are two instances of MarYah in this verse. Are these both circumlocutions for YHWH?

Since the previous verse, 57, talks about thanking God for Jesus, we assume that both of these are references to God Almighty, especially since the Greek translation is indeed missing the article (‘the’) in the second instance.

However, we only translate the last one as [Jehovah/Yahweh] because usually a synonym is used instead of the same word twice.

We guess that the first use is meant to be the title Lord because the Greek uses the article. With it missing in the second instance, that’s probably where it’s supposed to be a circumlocution for YHWH.

Both instances probably refer to God, although the first one could be a reference to Jesus. We’re not sure.

1 Corinthians 16:10

Problem: Unclear which Lord is being referred to; No Greek agreement

The phrase is ‘the Lord’s work’. Which Lord? It’s not clear. It could easily be both!

Unhelpfully, the instance of MarYah here is not missing the article (‘the’) in the Greek text, so the ancients probably didn’t understand it as a circumlocution for YHWH.

It could be giving either Jesus or Jehovah/Yahweh the full title of Highest Lord.

If the Greek had agreed by having the ‘grammar error’, then this would certainly have been translated as [Jehovah/Yahweh], but without that confirmation, we just can’t be sure enough, so we leave it as ‘Lord’.

2 Corinthians 2:12

Problem: Unclear which Lord is being referred to

It is a little ambiguous which Lord is being referred to here by using MarYah. However two things help us clear it up.

Firstly, the Greek text shows it with the ‘grammar error’, suggesting YHWH.

Secondly, since Paul has already mentioned the Anointed One, if this ‘Lord’ is referring to the same person, he may as well have said something like this:

‘…to preach the good news about the Anointed One, and he opened a door for me there’.

However, he didn’t phrase it this way, but instead introduced a contrast (shown as MarYah).

‘…to preach the good news about the Anointed One, and MarYah opened a door for me there’.

So here MarYah likely refers to Almighty God, and could be a circumlocution for YHWH. Therefore, we translate it as [Jehovah/Yahweh].

2 Corinthians 3:16-18

Problem: Unclear which Lord is being referred to

Here, there are five instances of MarYah in these three verses.

Paul talks about:

  • People turning to MarYah,
  • The breath/spirit of MarYah (three times),
  • And the glory of MarYah.

These could easily be referring to turning to Jesus, his glory, and his spirit. However, all but the first phrase are so common in the Old Testament – in the Law, the prophets, and the psalms – in referring to YHWH, that any Aramaic-speaking Jew who read or heard them would likely assume that MarYah is a circumlocution for YHWH.

Further, all except the second instance are missing the article (‘the’) in the Greek text.

So we translate MarYah as [Jehovah/Yahweh] in all five instances. Like all these decisions, this is not made dogmatically and is open to future change.

2 Corinthians 10:18

Problem: Unclear which Lord is being referred to

‘So understand that those who think of themselves as being important aren’t necessarily the ones who’ll be approved…

Just those who are recommended by our Lord!

Is it referring to Almighty God’s Name? Or Jesus as the Highest Lord?

Since this occurrence of MarYah (Lord) comes with the article (‘the’) beforehand in the Greek translation, it seems that the ancients understood this as simply meaning ‘the Lord’ and not as a circumlocution for YHWH.

Also, because Jesus was the one who previously appointed the Apostles, it would be consistent for this reference to be a title given to him.

Besides, ‘our Jehovah/Yahweh’ is not a common expression.

Therefore, we translate it as ‘Lord’.

Ephesians 4:17

Problem: Unclear which Lord is being referred to

‘I say and advise this from the Lord…’

While it sounds like this could be talking about Jesus, in addition to MarYah, it also has the Greek ‘grammar error’.

So we assume it’s a circumlocution for YHWH.

Philippians 2:29

Problem: Unclear which Lord is being referred to

While it may seem unclear, with both MarYah here and the Greek text also having its ‘grammar error’, this is probably a circumlocution for YHWH.

Colossians 3:22

Problem: Unclear which Lord is being referred to; Possible corruption of the Greek text

Some Greek manuscripts say ‘God’ here, while others say ‘the Lord’. So it seems that at least some ancients believed this verse is referring to God and not to Jesus.

Our second independent witness to the Greek text, the Aramaic, says MarYah. Now, is MarYah a circumlocution for YHWH here?

Well, on the one hand, ‘the fear of Jehovah/Yahweh’ was a common expression in the Old Testament.

On the other hand, the next verse (v23), which says:

‘work at it wholeheartedly as though you’re doing it for the Lord‘

…uses Mara for Lord, not MarYah (and Greek says ‘the Lord’ again).

So this first occurrence of MarYah in verse 22 could simply be the full spelling of Lord, in reference to Jesus in Glory.

If so, then this is not a circumlocution for YHWH after all. So what to do?

Well, on balance, we will say it’s a circumlocution for YHWH, simply by the fact that ‘fear of YHWH’ is such a common expression in the Old Testament. It would be very odd for people to be applying it to Jesus when everyone was so familiar with circumlocutions for YHWH.

However, that prompts the question: Why does the Greek text not have the ‘grammar error’? Well, something is obviously strange about this verse in the Greek texts since some say ‘God’ and others say ‘the Lord’. The Sinaiticus doesn’t say anything — the word is missing! This suggests that the Greek text suffered some loss or corruption, and perhaps the Aramaic preserves the original wording.

We can’t be sure, though.

Colossians 4:7

Problem: Unclear which Lord is being referred to

Yet again, while the context may not make it obvious, the presence of MarYah here and the Greek ‘grammar error’, suggests it’s probably a circumlocution for YHWH.

2 Timothy 2:19

Problem: Quoting a possible corrupted verse

In reference to the second MarYah here, this is a commonly mistranslated verse (as explained in this translator note).

Paul is (we think) paraphrasing Joel 2:32, a verse where we think the original Hebrew was corrupted (long, long before the wonderfully accurate Masorets) to include an extra YHWH. We might be wrong about that, of course.

However, if we are correct, then the verse in Joel is saying ‘Lord’ (not YHWH) as part of a messianic prophecy about Jesus.

Therefore, this MarYah here in 2 Timothy is not a circumlocution for YHWH, but just the full version of Lord. After all, when Joel was translated from Hebrew to Aramaic, someone had to decide which version of ‘Lord’ to use. Would it be Mara or MarYah? It seems that someone chose MarYah!

They may have thought the ‘Lord’ being mentioned was Jehovah/Yahweh, but they didn’t know that it was a messianic prophecy, and the Lord would turn out to be Jesus.

So we believe (rightly or wrongly) that this is not a circumlocution for God’s Name.

However, one could argue that MarYah is still the fitting Aramaic word since it is the full version of Lord.

James 3:9

Problem: Unclear if a circumlocution for YHWH or not

The Aramaic says:

‘we bless Lord (MarYah) and Father,’

However, the Greek version says:

‘we bless The God and Father,’

Whichever we look at, they both are referring to God Almighty.

But is the Aramaic word a circumlocution for YHWH? Well, on the one hand, we have MarYah, but on the other hand there’s grammar ‘error’ in the Greek text.

So we don’t know.

However, since we defer to the Aramaic text whenever it disagrees with the Greek, we will go with the Aramaic text, but translate it as ‘Highest Lord’.

2 Peter 3:10

Problem: Corrupted Hebrew text

The Old Testament expression ‘Day of the Lord’ was originally coined in Hebrew, so at some point, Aramaic speakers had to translate it into their language.

They chose to use MarYah.

Later, we believe that God’s Name was incorrectly restored to the Hebrew text, making the expression say ‘Day of Jehovah/Yahweh’ in the Hebrew Masoretic text, when it should have say ‘day of the Lord.’ We then speculate that Peter understood this. Of course, we could be wrong.

So in this verse, although it says MarYah, we translate it as ‘Lord’. The Lord is probably referring to Jesus and is not a circumlocution for YHWH. Indeed, the full spelling of MarYah is appropriate for the King.

However, uniquely to the Aramaic, later on in verse 12, it uses the expression ‘day of God’ instead of ‘day of the Lord’. This is probably explained by the fact that 2 Peter was added to the Aramaic Bible very late, perhaps when binitarian (proto Trinitarian) views started to become popular.

2 Peter 3:15

Problem: Unclear if a circumlocution for YHWH or not

The expression ‘our Lord’ (our MarYah) could be referring to Jehovah/Yahweh or Jesus.

However, the expression ‘our MarYah’ is not known as a circumlocution for ‘our YHWH.’ Indeed, ‘our Jehovah/Yahweh’ is very odd.

Therefore, we assume that it’s just the full spelling of Lord rather than a reference to God’s Name.

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